Forum:Wand individuality

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Well, I was rereading the HP series, and I came across something strange. Twice. First was in book #2, when Gilderoy Lockhart uses (or at least tries to) Ron's wand to cast the obliviate curse. The second was in book #6, when Voldemort uses the other old wizard's (I can't remember the name) wand to kill his parents and grandparents. If they were able to cast spells successfully, then how come they talk about how each wand is different, made specifically for the particular wizard? What's the point if other wizard's wands work just as well? Also, they say the wand chooses the wizard, is the wand's master predetermined from when it is made, or does the wand just decide what wizard it wants when it enters the store. If it isn't the latter, then could it be that a wand made in China might belong to a wizard living in Wales?

Please help,

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