I haven’t actually watched any of the Fantastic Beasts movies. I’ve only read the screenplays. I’m making this post in the hopes of getting something cleared up for me.

In The Crimes of Grindelwald, at some point it mentions that it’s been about six months since Paris. (I think.) Eulalies tells Jacob that “just over a year ago” he became acquainted with the magical world. So, the first and third movies would be about a year apart.

Yet the wiki says it’s been five years, and it’s 1932. That wasn’t mentioned anywhere in the screenplay. Did the movie mention this?

Five years, to me, just seems too long. Credence never had doubts about Grindelwald in all that time? Queenie was in Nurmengard for all that time? Jacob went home and moped for five years until Eulalie found him?

Six months between Paris and Bhutan would make more sense to me. This would also account for Theseus losing control when faced with Grindelwald and his followers - he’s the head Auror, he’s trained for situations like this, but if it’s only been a few months since Leta’s death it would make sense, rather than the pain still being so sharp and raw five years later.

So I guess I’m asking where exactly it’s specified that it’s 1932, or if I’m free to headcanon that it’s only been six months?